Top 200+ Free PMP Mock Test Questions with Answers: 2025 Update

These sample questions of PMP certifications are based on three primary domains, reflecting the core responsibilities of a project manager. Understanding these domains will help you frame your preparation strategy for the PMP mock test as well as for the PMP exam.

1. People Domain

This domain focuses on the human aspect of project management, how you lead teams, resolve conflicts, and motivate individuals. It also covers team leadership and stakeholder management.

2. Process Domain

This domain covers the technical aspects of project management. You’ll deal with project planning, scope management, risk management, change control, and procurement.

3. Business Environment Domain

This domain addresses the broader organizational environment, including compliance, value delivery, and stakeholder alignment. It's about ensuring the project aligns with business goals.

In this format, most of the exam consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and multiple-response questions that mirror the real-world responsibilities of a project manager. Expect situational questions that test how you would react in different project scenarios.

Domain Focus: Conflict resolution, stakeholder engagement, leadership, team performance, and emotional intelligence

P1. A high‑performing software engineer is promoted to team lead but continues working solo and stops mentoring others. Team morale has declined. What should the project manager do first?

A. Assign them peer mentorship duties immediately

B. Issue a performance warning

C. Have a private conversation to understand their motivations

D. Escalate to HR

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: This is a classic case of the halo effect, assuming excellence in coding implies leadership ability. The coach must explore the underlying causes before deciding whether to train or reassign.

P2.At a cross‑functional team’s retrospective, two members begin arguing in front of others. What is the best action for the project manager?

A. Provide on‑the‑spot coaching focused on behaviors 

B. Call a timeout, and address the issue privately later

C. Switch seats to reduce eye contact

D. Document both team members’ names in the issue log

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Preserving psychological safety requires private conflict resolution; public confrontation undermines team cohesion.

P3. A stakeholder misses scheduled reviews and doesn’t respond to emails. What approach is most likely to re‑engage them?

A. Copy in the sponsor on email reminders

B. Send meeting minutes and action items instead

C. Request a short one‑on‑one with them to explore their concerns

D. Remove them from the stakeholder register

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Engagement is often increased by asking open questions. Removing stakeholders prematurely can create gaps in critical feedback loops.

P4. Your distributed team’s senior technical lead dominates all discussions. Other members are reluctant to contribute. What’s the most effective leadership style here?

A. Directive

B. Autocratic

C. Servant‑leadership

D. Laissez‑faire

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Servant leadership helps redistribute the floor for others to contribute, leveling participation and fostering belonging.

P5. During a status meeting, a remote team member hasn’t spoken. You suspect disengagement. What step helps the most?

A. Ask them to present next

B. Cut them out of meetings due to low participation

C. Use breakout rooms in the next virtual meeting to encourage small group dialogue

D. Send them a written progress request

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Smaller groups often boost participation, especially in virtual settings.

P6. A team member has been missing deadlines and blaming others. What should you do first?

A. Reassign their tasks to more reliable members

B. Issue an official performance warning

C. Have a one‑to‑one conversation to explore root causes

D. Submit a behaviour report to HR

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Personal leadership precedes formal discipline, empathy, and fact‑finding first.

P7. The project sponsor tries to force adoption of unapproved technology, promising faster results, but operations can’t support it post‑launch. What should the project manager do?

A. Promote it to stakeholders to gain support

B. Ignore the sponsor’s preference and stick strictly to the scope

C. Acknowledge the lack of operational approval, and work toward a win‑win solution for the customer

D. Escalate conflict and force the issue

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Recognizing and managing ambiguity while prioritizing value is key to stakeholder trust.

P8. Upon joining a project mid‑way, you observe the team works well together and resolves issues smoothly. Which stage of Tuckman’s ladder are they likely in?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

Correct Answer → D

Rationale: Smooth collaboration and issue‑resolution indicate a Performing maturity level.

P9. A team member shares that personal stress is affecting performance. What’s your best first step?

A. Give them easier tasks temporarily

B. Offer confidential support and listening first

C. Escalate to their manager or HR

D. Document the performance dip in the project log

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Human‑centered leadership supports individuals while safeguarding team morale.

P10. Your discussion roles matrix reveals overlapping responsibilities and confusion. How could you clarify authority and accountability effectively?

A. Switch to the RACI model and review it with the team

B. Increase formal governance documentation

C. Change organizational structure

D. Remove overlapping tasks

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: RACI is a classic mediator for clarifying responsibilities without structural upheaval.

P11. An external assessor is unfamiliar with the organization’s culture and team norms and interrupts sessions heavily. What should you do?

A. Let them proceed; they add objectivity

B. Brief them in a one‑on‑one about team customs, and ask them to follow agreed protocols

C. Escalate to the sponsor that the assessor is disruptive

D. Ask them to halt their questions during work sessions

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Orienting external parties to internal norms respects local culture while enabling effectiveness.

P12. You find one of your pace-based contractors overbilling hours because they’re idle. Customer is unaware. What is an ethical leadership action?

A. Do nothing, customer is unaware, and there’s no extra value

B. Remove them from the project and process a refund to the customer

C. Smile and leave it to the functional manager

D. Mentor them to find productive work; notify the customer if conditions do not improve.

Correct Answer → D

Rationale: Ethical leadership intervenes humanely and transparently; mistakes are managed, not ignored.

P13. Your sponsor is scheduled for a high-level briefing. What stakeholder engagement style do you use for someone with high authority but low interest?

A. Keep the sponsor fully informed

B. Manage the sponsor closely

C. Keep the sponsor satisfied

D. Monitor the sponsor’s behaviour

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: High authority and low interest require keeping satisfied, engaging enough to ensure support without daily status overload.

P14. Morale has fallen after a failed release. What action helps turn the tide?

A. Reassign tasks downward to reduce load

B. Host a reflection session to celebrate small wins, acknowledging setbacks

C. Reassign everyone to a new initiative

D. Push for overtime to catch up

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Recognizing progress helps rebuild confidence and combat discouragement.

P15. Two senior consultants from different firms are repeatedly in conflict, bottlenecking progress. What stage of team development is hard to overcome here?

A. Forming

B. Storming

C. Norming

D. Performing

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Storming often causes clashing authority and impeded trust unless managed promptly.

P16. During a sprint planning, a domineering developer interrupts everyone. You want every voice heard. What is the fair approach?

A. Post the team’s working agreement on the wall

B. Privately note to their manager and flag them next time

C. During the next meeting, allocate speaking turns equally among members.

D. Invite the sponsor to encourage decorum

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Equal speaking time fosters inclusivity and prevents individuals from monopolizing dialogue.

P17. Remote contributors are silent during video meetings. What technique can help improve their interactive contribution?

A. Use a fishbowl format where they alternate participation

B. Exclude them from weekly planning

C. Replace with onsite proxies

D. Only send summary emails.

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: Structured participation formats such as fishbowls encourage involvement while ensuring discoverability of silence.

P18. Your team regularly responds to unexpected stakeholder queries, which distracts from deliverables. What should you do first as a project manager?

A. Stop the team from responding and have them focus only on tasks

B. Batch all queries for weekly responses

C. Forward all incoming stakeholder requests to yourself

D. Review the communications management plan and update guidance accordingly

Correct Answer → D

Rationale: Clear communication protocols are key to reducing interruptions and maintaining alignment.

P19. A developer who was once engaged has become withdrawn after feedback sessions. What emotional intelligence action helps most?

A. Give them urgent tasks to re‑engage their interest

B. Ask if the feedback was helpful and invite their perspective privately

C. Publicly praise them in the next meeting

D. Escalate to their functional manager

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: By inviting the team member’s own voice, you're applying empathy and building trust more effectively than default corrective measures.

P20. One of your remote team members hints at poor home working conditions impacting performance, but hasn’t formally stated it. How should you respond?

A. Offer flexible hours or hybrid presence options

B. Tell them to push through anyway

C. Document their issues in the status report

D. Escalate immediately to HR

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: Flexible work arrangements demonstrate supportive leadership while helping performance without making assumptions.

Domain Focus: Scope, schedule, risk, cost, change management, procurement, quality

Question Type: Situational, formula-based, process-driven logic

Q1. Midway through project execution, you discover a risk that materialized, causing a delay. Though one workaround was implemented, no formal change request was submitted. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A. Ignore it, since the issue is already handled

B. Submit an official change request documenting the workaround

C. Schedule a team meeting to develop an updated response

D. Update the risk register only

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: PMI requires that workarounds, even if implemented, are later formalized through change control, so that baselines and governance remain intact.

Q2. A project begins reporting a consistent 20% CPI (< 1) and SPI (> 1). Which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. The project is ahead of schedule and under budget

B. The project is behind schedule and over budget

C. It’s over budget but ahead of schedule

D. Performance is within acceptable limits

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: CPI < 1 means cost overrun; SPI > 1 means ahead of schedule

Q3. You’ve just become PM of an ongoing initiative in a different company. A resourcing issue has emerged, risking an upcoming deadline. What should you do first?

A. Call for a team sync to adjust roles

B. Escalate the resource risk to the sponsor

C. Review the risk management plan for pre-planned responses

D. Reassign tasks to meet the deadline

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: The correct PMP response to a potential risk is to reference existing risk plans, even if you are new to the organization, to ensure consistency

Q4. During procurement, your current vendor repeatedly fails to meet contractual terms. You intend to replace them with an overseas supplier. What is the first step you should take?

A. Engage an external consultant for evaluation

B. Request assistance from the procurement department to navigate the change

C. Study the new supplier’s cultural practices in case of negotiation

D. Draft a replacement PO to prepare for the shift

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Procurement department expertise should guide contractual transitions before further steps

Q5. As part of quality control, using a histogram, you detect consistent peaks at certain timings. What issue is this indicating?

A. Critical path convergence

B. Over‑allocated resources

C. Variable work density

D. Statistical sampling error

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: A resource histogram showing uneven resource usage over time suggests variable concentration of workload or scheduling inefficiencies

Q6. While planning schedule quality metrics, a scheduling auditor refers to “path convergence” in your PDM diagram. What is the explication?

A. A node where multiple predecessors merge

B. A conditional branch node

C. Decision tree point

D. Quality checkpoint in WBS

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: “Path convergence” refers to nodes in schedule networks where multiple branches join, which must be monitored for float/calculation issues.

Q7. Your manager instructs you to “Crush” the tight schedule by a 10% reduction in duration. What method best achieves this?

A. Adding contingency reserves

B. Crashing, adding resources, or applying overtime

C. Scope reduction (combo)

D. Fast-tracking overlapping phases

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Crashing speeds up the schedule by adding resources or paying overtime, not by overlapping tasks.

Q8. Your risk identification workshop yielded over 200 risks. You suspect not all are high priority. What should you do next?

A. Perform qualitative risk analysis to prioritize

B. Conduct a return-on-investment cost-benefit for each risk

C. Apply quantitative analysis across all risks

D. Trigger only those risks with identified triggers

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: It’s best practice to prioritize many risks qualitatively before spending time on quantitative risk models.

Q9. You need offers from vendors quickly but briefly. Which procurement tool can streamline this process?

A. Advertising

B. Bidder conference

C. Qualified seller list

D. Expert judgment

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: A pre‑qualified seller list helps speed RFP processes by limiting them to vetted vendors.

Q10. During a quality review, you collect error frequency data in a matrix without a pattern. Which tool helps you spot error concentrations?

A. Check sheet

B. Influence diagram

C. Process decision program chart

D. Flowchart

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: A check sheet is used for tallying defect frequency by type or location to identify hotspots.

Q11. A stakeholder refuses to sign off on scope acceptance due to minor discrepancies. Which communication technique is most appropriate to resolve this?

A. Organize a formal scope validation with the customer and PMO

B. Escalate to the change control board to exclude the stakeholder

C. Use expert judgment to overrule stakeholder objections

D. Present a revised scope statement to calm concerns

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: Formal scope validation is required when stakeholders withhold acceptance; it must involve proper governance.

Q12. Where is the cost baseline documented during the PMP processes?

A. Perform integrated change control

B. Determine budget

C. Estimate costs

D. Develop schedule

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Cost baseline is part of the Determine Budget, which aggregates cost estimates into an approved time-phased plan.

Q13. What must a communications management plan specify?

A. Communication technologies to use

B. Recipient names in the stakeholder log

C. Timing, format, and detail of each channel

D. Training methodology for communication tools

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: The plan defines what, when, how, and to whom information is delivered; not just tools.

Q14. Which statement regarding change requests is FALSE?

A. All change requests must go through integrated change control

B. Unapproved changes often lead to scope creep

C. Change requests are always a sign of poor planning

D. Properly managed change may improve the project

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: PMI recognizes that not all change is bad, and change requests are not necessarily signs of planning failure.

Q15. Which statement about baselines is NOT accurate in both configuration and project management?

A. Baselines serve for performance monitoring

B. In configuration, baselines are controlled through audit

C. Baselines are identified solely by a control limits chart

D. In project management, baselines measure variance

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Baselines are not defined by control limits; they are approved plans used for performance tracking.

Q16. When using three‑point estimates on a two‑activity path, what is the overall duration range if individual uncertainties are 18 and 24 days (±3σ)?

A. 21 days

B. 30 days

C. 42 days

D. Indeterminate

Correct Answer → A

Rationale: For two variances σ₁=18, σ₂=24, total ±3σ = ±√(18²+24²)=30 days over 3σ → ±10σ per activity; so range ≈ 21 days. This follows PERT Δ = √(σ₁² + σ₂²) ÷ 6 assumption.

Q17.As the new project manager, you plan a digital transformation with a team assigned and a backlog prepared. What should you do before the launch?

A. Run scrum backlog refinement first

B. Compare team skills to backlog requirements

C. Conduct organizational culture review

D. Consolidate integration management artifacts

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Understanding the organizational environment and culture is essential before starting execution in a context of change.

Q18. In managing communications for a mixed stakeholder group in a technical field, what principle should the project manager follow?

A. Send all technical data in one handover package

B. Use industry-specific jargon for clarity

C. Adapt language to audience understanding

D. Deliver messages through emails only

Correct Answer → C

Rationale: Tailoring communication to the recipients’ comprehension level ensures clarity and effectiveness.

Q19. An agile team loses momentum over recent sprints. What two tools are most effective for diagnosing this decline? (Pick two.)

A. Burndown chart

B. Backlog burn‑up chart

C. Cumulative flow diagram

D. WBS for upcoming iteration

E. Project schedule

Correct Answer → A & C

Rationale: Burndown charts show remaining work over time; CFD reveals bottlenecks,  both key in agile iteration analysis.

Q20. Your earned-value analysis shows CV = -$12,000 and SPI = 1.25. What does this signify?

A. Project is under budget and ahead of schedule

B. Over budget and ahead of schedule

C. Over budget and behind schedule

D. Under budget and behind schedule

Correct Answer → B

Rationale: Negative cost variance means over budget; SPI >1 means ahead of schedule,  so over budget and ahead of timeline.

Domain Focus: Business value alignment, organizational change, compliance, sustainability, benefits realization

Question Type: Situational, strategic thinking

BE 01. A new regulation becomes active mid-project, requiring added compliance activities. What should the project manager do first?

A. Temporarily pause work to assess impact

B. Submit a formal change request to adjust planning, baselines, and gap logging

C. Document the new duty in the compliance checklist and continue

D. Ask the sponsor to redirect the omission

Answer: B

Rationale: PMI expects regulatory changes to be addressed through integrated change control so governance and baseline alignment are maintained.

BE 02. During the audit, the team is found unknowingly violating a data privacy standard in the current deliverables. What’s your first action?

A. Explain it's unintentional to the audit board

B. Escalate to compliance/legal to evaluate impact

C. Halt project activities until corrected

D. Log as a performance issue for closure reporting

Answer: B

Rationale: Early escalation helps assess legal and business ramifications before planning updates.

BE 03. Senior leadership refocuses on sustainable project execution. Your project currently misses the green directives. You should:

A. Cancel the project

B. Propose sustainability add-ons that still meet objectives

C. Proceed without changes unless forced

D. Add sustainability to post-launch maintenance

Answer: B

Rationale: Suggesting environmentally-aligned enhancements reflects strategic alignment without halting execution.

BE 04. A key stakeholder questions whether the project still supports the business’s strategic goals. Your best response:

A. Share the project charter only

B. Review the business case and update benefits forecast

C. Ask HR to validate alignment

D. Adjust scope quietly to favor business

Answer: B

Rationale: Revalidating the business alignment empowers informed decision-making.

BE 05. Your sponsor asks “Project Alpha” to proceed instead of “Project Beta,” though Beta yields $45 M vs. Alpha’s $50 M net gain. What is the opportunity cost?

A. $95 M

B. $50 M

C. $45 M

D. $5 M

Answer: C

Rationale: Opportunity cost equals the value of the next-best alternative, $45 M if Alpha is selected.

BE 06. An agile sponsor emphasizes benefit outcomes, and business shifting priorities suggest some backlog features may no longer add value. You should:

A. Stick strictly to the original plan

B. Request the team to finish the current sprint before adjustments

C. Re‑prioritize the backlog after each iteration to maximize value

D. Escalate to PMO to override the product owner

Answer: C

Rationale: In a shifting environment, reprioritizing ensures effort remains focused on the most valuable features.

BE 07. Your hybrid project involves iterative development. Stakeholder feedback after each cycle is inconsistent. To boost alignment, you should:

A. Reduce iteration duration

B. Use gated waterfall with phase reviews

C. Engage stakeholders in each iterative cycle via demos

D. Skip feedback and focus on internal testing

Answer: C

Rationale: Iterative engagement aligns stakeholder expectations in fast‑changing contexts.

BE 08. Your organization is highly politicized, and competing interests delay decisions. As PM, how should you influence stakeholders toward project goals?

A. Issue directives and cut timelines

B. Stand firm on your plan regardless of objections

C. Promote the structured stakeholder engagement process

D. Raise risk flags prominently in every meeting

Answer: C

Rationale: Using structured stakeholder management helps mediate influence through engagement, not authority.

BE 09. During travel restrictions affecting product rollout, your team must reassess the entire value proposition. As PM, you should:

A. Cancel the project and redeploy the team

B. Wait for the sponsor to decide

C. Evaluate environmental change and recommend pivot or stop

D. Delegate everything to product management

Answer: C

Rationale: Examining changes in the business environment and recommending a pivot is central to domain tasks.

BE 10. In applying a scoring model to rank multiple projects for approval, you rank each project on profitability, complexity, and strategic fit. Which should proceed?

A. Highest-scoring project

B. Lowest-budget proposal

C. Project with least risk

D. Shortest duration effort

Answer: A

Rationale: Scoring models align investments with strategic value; the highest score wins.

BE 11. Which project document typically formalizes compliance classification, controls, and oversight mechanisms?

A. Project charter

B. Communications plan

C. Scope statement

D. Quality management plan

Answer: A

Rationale: The charter captures compliance requirements and defines authority and governance roles.

BE 12. Your company plans to open an office in a region with unclear regulatory frameworks. What’s your first step as PM?

A. Hire local talent immediately

B. Assess legal and environmental regulations and list assumptions

C. Begin execution, trusting existing templates

D. Wait for external law to take effect

Answer: B

Rationale: Identifying local constraints early supports proactive compliance strategies.

BE 13. A corporate merger is underway, changing structural reporting and governance; your project spans both entities. What should you do first?

A. Fast-track project closure under new ownership

B. Restructure the team per the new org chart

C. Engage sponsors on revised structure and re-baseline roles

D. Freeze communication until integration completes

Answer: C

Rationale: Organizational change demands revalidation of governance and stakeholder alignment.

BE 14. After project closure, you discover it delivered on scope and budget, but usage rates are low. What’s the next move?

A. Declare success and archive

B. Transfer results to IT maintenance

C. Initiate benefits realization review and recommend corrective actions

D. Close and deduct budget variance

Answer: C

Rationale: Examining actual realized value supports strategic review and continuous benefits management.

BE 15. Midway, sponsors question whether the initiative still aligns with business values. You suggest:

A. Halting the project immediately

B. Escalating concerns to the board

C. Leading a benefits-alignment discussion to re-evaluate continuation

D. Continuing silently to deliver everything planned

Answer: C

Rationale: Proactive value alignment helps mitigate waste and manage expectations.

BE 16. A sudden legislative update affects project funding. Before taking action, evaluate:

A. Market trends outside your industry

B. Financial instruments that can mitigate cash flow risk

C. Stakeholder fatigue

D. Unrelated competitor activities

Answer: B

Rationale: Investment analysis and economic safeguards are key parts of the BI domain when changes affect viability.

BE 17. A VIP client requests fast-track delivery with high risk to quality. Your PM response should be:

A. Agree to meet client demands

B. Note verbally and proceed

C. Attach an impact assessment to a change request before proceeding

D. Override quality inspection for speed

Answer: C

Rationale: Any scope trade‑off affecting quality must go through formal approval with documented risk analysis.

BE 18. When managing uncertainty in business alignment, which analytical approach should you employ?

A. Sensitivity analysis and scenario modeling

B. Ignore variance and plan by assumption

C. Limit stakeholder input

D. Deflect to the product owner

Answer: A

Rationale: Tools for managing uncertainty, like scenario or sensitivity analyses, are explicitly in the Business Environment task set.

BE 19. Your project enters a new region where no prior lessons exist, and you lack understanding of the DBA tax system. You should:

A. Start work using your existing template

B. Collect assumptions for the region and analyze external risks

C. Outsource everything to a local vendor

D. Wait for regional data before planning

Answer: B

Rationale: Classifying regional assumptions and risks is critical before mobilization.

BE 20. In anticipation of compliance updates, your project needs to document adherence rules. Where would you include these?

A. Stakeholder register

B. Compliance section of the project management plan

C. Daily team stand-up notes

D. Communications log

Answer: B

Rationale: The compliance plan, part of the integrated project plan, details how the project meets all regulatory requirements.

To maximize your practice effectiveness, follow these steps:

• Time Yourself: Aim to answer 10 questions in 15–20 minutes to simulate exam conditions.
• Understand the Logic: Don’t just memorize answers. Understand why each answer is correct and how it relates to the real-world responsibilities of a project manager.
• Track Weak Areas: Identify patterns in your errors. Are you struggling with Process-related questions? Focus your revision on that domain.

To succeed in the PMP exam, focus on role-based preparation. It’s not just about memorizing theory but understanding how to apply your knowledge in real-world situations. By practicing this PMP mock test containing 50+ sample questions of PMP certification, you'll improve your ability to think critically under pressure.

For expert guidance, NovelVista offers comprehensive PMP certification training to help you master key concepts and confidently pass the exam.

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